Dear respected Shaykh, assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh. This is a question which someone discussed with me and I became confused. What is the criteria for the punishment of adultery. Is it penetration without a condom or penetration with a condom, meaning if someone commits adultery using a condom does this warrant punishment because his private part did not really have contact with the woman, or does this necessitate punishment because he penetrated the woman? Suppose that I was debating with a jurist who is well-versed in usool al-Fiqh matters, how do I convince him with an answer that is supported by authentic textual evidence? I have come across a fatwa by Shaikh ibn ‘Uthaimin in the book Liqaat al-Bab al-Maftuh where he was asked about the compulsoriness of bathing for a person who had sexual intercourse whilst wearing a condom, and he did not ejaculate, and he answered, “The safest thing is that he should bath. However, some scholars are of the opinion that bathing is not compulsory on him because the two circumcised parts (the penis and the vagina) did not touch each other.” I do not know if this answers my question. ضابط الحد في الزنا